I'm curious about misandry; is it always a reaction to misogyny?

I just want to ask this out of curiosity, not to argue or get a reaction out of people. As a guy I'm just curious to understand from a feminist’s perspective. I’ve often heard the argument that misandry solely exists as a response to misogyny. For example, I got this reply from someone earlier: 'If you’re talking about one or two women who are hating on men, those are exceptions and don’t count.' I feel like arguments like these are dismissive of the fact that misandry can exist independently of oppression and can appear in more than just isolated cases. While I see how misogyny can make some women develop misandrist views, I think that misandry can also exist without being tied to past oppression, you can see it in media, social movements, and online spaces where this pretty extreme misandrist rhetoric seems pretty normalized.

I think the argument that misandry is ONLY a reaction to misogyny can sometimes overlook how complex prejudice is. I understand that hurt and oppression can lead to anger toward those perceived as part of the oppressor group, but I don’t think that justifies perpetuating harmful ideas about an entire gender, even if the feelings come from past oppression. I'd love to hear a feminists perspective on this 🙏