Is ð”ēĖˆð”°ð”Ķð”Ŧð”Ī 𝔠ð”Ĩð”Ē𝔞Ėˆð”­ 𝔊ð”Ēð”ąð”žð”Đ ð”ē𝔊ð”Đ𝔞ð”ēð”ąð”° considered a ð”ąð”Ŋ𝔞Ėˆð”Īð”Ēð”Ąð”Ēð”Ķð”Īð”Ĩ?

(In my opinion, definitely. And at least the title only used umlauts where the "umlauted" vowel is pronounced close enough to the actual German sound.)